Why is there a ICC case of genocide against Israel but not China or Russia?
I don't understand, there is no proof of genocide in Israel but YEARS of evidence against China and Russia. Can anyone explain this to me?
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I don't understand, there is no proof of genocide in Israel but YEARS of evidence against China and Russia. Can anyone explain this to me?
What does that have to do with the International Court of Justice, isn't that a separate from the security council?
Its a reflection of the political realities that govern that level of international politics.
Are members of the security council able to veto a case? France, U.K, U.S.A, are all members too and support Israel how can they allow this to happen
it's not about the rules as written, its about the power politics and the relationships countries wish to maintain / develop.