Why 120%? To cover the interest that will accrue during the process?
sorry I didn’t answer before— I don’t know why 120%.
edit: according to some others who have answered this: it’s to cover any interest which might accrue during the appeal process.
Lol I was just joking around. Another article mentions it's to cover interest.
oh, no I felt bad that I didn’t answer the last person who asked because I got confused.
is it to cover interest? one would think that the holding institution would do that, but it makes sense that that shouldn’t be the ones responsible in a trust/escrow situation. I thought it might be a court fee situation, but a percentage amount wouldn’t make sense for that.
thanks for doing the research!
In fairness, I didn't actually do the research. Just saw this comment on another thread:
You were correct the first time. It's 120%.
lol, ok, fixed it again
Why 120%? To cover the interest that will accrue during the process?
sorry I didn’t answer before— I don’t know why 120%.
Lol I was just joking around. Another article mentions it's to cover interest.
oh, no I felt bad that I didn’t answer the last person who asked because I got confused.
is it to cover interest? one would think that the holding institution would do that, but it makes sense that that shouldn’t be the ones responsible in a trust/escrow situation. I thought it might be a court fee situation, but a percentage amount wouldn’t make sense for that.
thanks for doing the research!
In fairness, I didn't actually do the research. Just saw this comment on another thread:
https://lemmy.world/comment/7112583
That is fair