DesGrieux

@DesGrieux@sh.itjust.works
0 Post – 8 Comments
Joined 1 years ago

It's because "should've" and "should of" are pronounced the same. It doesn't make sense because they're just writing what they hear instead of thinking "I'm using the contraction of the auxiliary verb 'have'"..

I miss it. There's just not enough people here. Refreshing doesn't bring hardly anything new, none of my favorite communities exist, and where they do they're so small that nothing gets posted for an entire day.

I mean, I know these things take time but I'm pessimistic.

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Shakespeare did not "make" changes, he's just a very good record of changes that had taken place.

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They use 'of' because they don't understand (or pay attention to) the grammar of what they're saying.

Sure. Because it sounds identical. " 've" and "of" are both pronounced /əv/, hence the confusion. Native speakers write what they hear. If you ever want to stop errors like this, the only solution is spelling reform.

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English spelling errors are common because English is not written phonetically. If you fix that, you reduce the errors, not increase them. Spelling mistakes would still occur to some degree (ultimately because one dialect's pronunciation must be chosen for the written standard) but it would still be an improvement.

Imagine if anglophone students could learn to read and write in 2 years like their peers in Spanish and German speaking countries (many dozens of others) instead of 10.

I never thought that these two could be pronounced the same.

Yes, English spelling is very misleading.

I pronounce of as in office

That would be a mistake in all dialects of English. It is always pronounced with a /v/ sound and the vowel is a schwa. 've is also a schwa plus /v/.

It is not incorrect.

his plays marked major shifts in the style of writing for the english language,

True, that is perfectly in line with what I said and contradicts the statement that he "made changes. "making changes" is not the same thing as "marking major shifts".

many writers after him adopted his style and the new mechanics he was making in his plays.

Many would imitate his style. But we also know very little about the styles that influenced Shakespeare. New mechanics? Not sure what you mean by that. He did not alter the grammar of English nor did he invent words. When people claim he "invented" words or phrases, what they really mean is that his works are the first recorded example. That is not the same thing as "inventing."

"Should've" and "should of" are pronounced the same, what are you talking about? There's no way you can mix them up in speech. Are you even a native English speaker?