Texas defendant challenging federal gun law at the Supreme Court says he doesn’t want firearms anymore
Zackey Rahimi, the Texas criminal defendant challenging a federal gun law before the Supreme Court on Tuesday, said this summer that he no longer wanted to own firearms and expressed remorse for his actions that got him in trouble with the law.
“I will make sure for sure this time that when I finish my time being incarcerated to stay the faithful, righteous person I am this day, to stay away from all drugs at all times, do probation & parole rightfully, to go to school & have a great career, have a great manufacturing engineering job, to never break any law again, to stay away from the wrong circle, to stay away from all firearms & weapons, & to never be away from my family again,” Rahimi, who is being held at a Fort Worth jail, said in a handwritten letter dated July 25.
He continued: “I had firearms for the right reason in our place to be able to protect my family at all times especially for what we’ve went through in the past but I’ll make sure to do whatever it takes to be able to do everything the right pathway & to be able to come home fast as I can to take care of my family at all times.”
It doesn't matter. If the SC upholds the law (which is unlikely) the gun lobby will simply find someone more acceptable, and under slightly different circumstances, and bring up another challenge. They'll keep going after gun laws the way the anti-choice side relentlessly attacked Roe.
I mean, this particular gun law violates the 14A, so it's good for all of us if 2A supporters go after it.
How is putting guns in the hands of known abusers a good thing to do? Why is that person's right to a gun more important to the lives of those around him?
The basis of this appeal is the question of whether a civil protective order can be tantamount to conviction for purposes of depriving enumerated Constitutional rights.
It is rote accepted practice in many divorce filings to file a restraining order as a preemptive measure even if the person being filed against poses no credible or historical threat of violence.
I think it makes sense to make someone a prohibited person for certain violent convictions but I'm more skeptical of civil filings that are often spurious or without evidentiary basis.
Incorrect. For that to be correct, there would have to be a standard of proof. The correct term here is accused abusers.
Semantics are easy when you're sacrificing other people's lives.
It's bizarre you think yourself a hero as you openly advocate putting the property of abusers over the safety of those they abuse, like temporarily losing access to firearms is a bigger tragedy than being executed by a former partner.
Are we supposed to politely ignore how that makes you look? People who hit their wives also post on social media and it shouldn't come as a shock to people that they also tend see themselves the victim and right about everything.
You're a big brave boy, you can handle a few months away from your beloved guns.
Burden of proof that a gun owner respects human life is on them. I’d like another amendment please.
It's pretty clear that you don't actually have any ideas here and are just like a barking dog.
So you engage in sophistry to avoid an actual argument. That didn't fly in Ancient Greece and won't fly here.
Because the 2nd Amendment is clear and any gun law is an infringement of the right.
Even gun loving conservative scholars agree that the 2nd amendment is a barely coherent grammatically tenuous mess. It’s notoriously unclear.
But for my part, I don’t see how any sane person reads “A well regulated Militia” and concludes that all regulation is prohibited.
Shhhh, the know-nothings don't know this.
Maybe because the country didn't have the money or resources to equip the "well regulated militia" at that time therefore depended on the people to bring their own arms?
Who?
I mean, "the right of the people shall not be infringed."
Also, correspondence at the time sort of supports this.
Literally every serious constitutional scholar thinks it’s ambiguous, just as a matter of English language. Even Scalia, the arch-right Supreme Court justice who penned the majority opinion for Heller, the decision that established the right to own a personal firearm, wrote:
That isn't a constitutional argument, that is a stare decisis argument.
Here is what is said above that, where it is clearly a constitutional argument, because it references the constitution as evidence- not other courts.
That's the justification, not the right. The right is to bear arms. The militia is everyone able-bodied in the US.
Whether you personally think that’s the correct interpretation, if you’re intellectually honest you should at least be able to admit, as many conservative legal scholars themselves admit, that the wording is ambiguous.
I'll buy that when one these "conservative legal scholars" aka moron federalists can produce a single primary source document that uses the phrase bear arms outside of a strictly military context involving uniformed, regimented troops, and instead refers expressly to an individual right of self defense.
Otherwise, it's not ambiguous.
I was curious about this, so I looked into it. According to the Duke center for Firearms Law, one study found that "nearly 95 percent of all uses of “bear arms” conveyed the idiomatic sense relating serving in the military". Another found usage to be 66% military, 21% both military and civilian, and 13% ambiguous. But it sounds like there are a lot of primary sources uses of non-military contexts, especially directly preceding the war for independence.
I'm on your side and I think this is an interesting point, but personally, I'm not convinced this is the strongest argument. We should be able to regulate firearms, even if "bear arms" means "carry arms for private use".
Well he's right about the able bodied bit at least. Under the legal definition of militia in the US every able bodied male age 17-45 is actively part of the militia. One could make the argument that women (outside the NG), disabled people, and old people shouldn't have the right to guns with this I suppose but that feels sexist, ableist, and ageist (is that still a thing?)
"(a)The militia of the United States consists of all able-bodied males at least 17 years of age and, except as provided in section 313 of title 32, under 45 years of age who are, or who have made a declaration of intention to become, citizens of the United States and of female citizens of the United States who are members of the National Guard." https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/10/246#:~:text=(a)The,the%20National%20Guard.
The wording while ambiguous to some seems fairly clear to me tbh too, "the right of the people to keep and bear arms" is the only part that on its own makes a complete sentance, the prescriptive clause simply explaining that the reason "the people" have the right to keep and bear arms is because "the militia" as defined above is important. "Well regulated" is the only bit one could quibble over, however as "the militia" is defined, it seems clear to be intending "well maintained" as per historical definitions of "well regulated," though historically it was used both as that and how we'd use it today.
https://www.oed.com/search/advanced/Quotations?textTermText0=Well+regulated&textTermOpt0=QuotText
Furthermore, from other historical papers that might offer context, we have quotes like these:
I think it's pretty clear what they intended. Not to say you can't disagree with their intentions themselves, but it does seem pretty clear what they did intend.
So I stopped when you claimed the definition of militia was males 17-45. That definition came WELL AFTER the passage of the 2nd Amendment. Considering you started with something incorrect, I'm not so sure I put much stock in the rest of your gish gallop.
That is the CURRENT legal definition, like it or not, and if you'd continued reading it would've provided more context yet you remain willfully ignorant. This is your choice and you are free to make it.
Cool citations for things said after the amendment was passed. Curious why the convention voted down unanimously an amendment that included an express individual right.
Any citations from before 1776 describing an individual right to bear arms in the common law?
The bill of rights does not add any new right which did not already then exist at common law.
Those things are from the year or the years shortly following, they are by far more historically relevant than the 2023 usage.
This is always a bizarre argument. Okay sure, it means "well maintained". Now explain how "well maintained" means "full of morbidly obese men who have zero combat training, wouldn't follow orders and can't prove they can even safely handle a gun, let alone do anything useful with it and also they might be suicidal, psychotic or eager to kill a room full of children".
No army in the world would indiscriminately accept American gun owners just for being American gun owners. Not even shitty militant groups fighting in the lowest GDP countries.
Well I don't think "no guns for fatties" is a good look tbh, and it seems to be simply mean rather than something "effective" or "useful." Besides, the militia back then was mostly made up of farmers without military training, but yes, they weren't "fatties."
Neither is 70% of mass shooters being legal gun owners or legal gun owners murdering their partners but hey, not hurting their feelings is important too.
So militaries having minimum health requirements is just them being big meanies?
And they were almost entirely worthless until they were rounded up and given that training, which the founding fathers were absolutely aware of when the amendment was written.
Anyway, whatever definition you go with, gun owners are meeting neither.
How many gun owners become mass shooters? Lets see, 333,287,557 people, 50% (generous, it isn't quite 50 but for easy math) ownership for 166,643,778.5 people owning guns, and I'll be generous and include gang shootings (because I know the number) at 547 for the year, turns out, 547 is 0.00032824507756826% of 166643778.5, meaning 0.00032824507756826% of gun owners are likely to pull off a mass shooting in any given year. Sure seems like they aren't the problem to me.
You can't ban rights from people for physical maladies or differences. Well, you can, or could, before the 13th ammendment but it is a commonly held belief that that was "bad." Turns out "banning the (blank)" from say "voting," or "free speech" is "wrong" and so "no guns for cripples and fatties" is also "wrong." "The military" doesn't have to take you but they also can't just kill you for being fat.
Well, Thomas Jefferson is directly quoted as contradicting your opinion, so I'm gonna say he knew better than you the parlance and attitudes of whiskey brewers that just overthrew a government in the 1700s.
Preventable deaths are preventable deaths and the gun laws you fawn over have caused tens of thousands.
Oh, you mean the guy who owned over 600 slaves? What were his thoughts on who should vote and have free speech?
Well I didn't realize you were one of those "no guns for the blacks" types...
It is far from ambiguous. The first half tells you why the right exists and only part of why. The second half is the right itself, which is the right of the people to keep and bear arms.
The whole question is whether the beginning is a merely “prefatory clause” that has no effect on the application of the second half. The other interpretation is that the beginning is not just idle small talk: People have the right to keep and bear arms insofar as it’s conducive to a well-regulated militia.
Now, you may disagree with that interpretation, but the existence of at least two rival interpretations is the very definition of ambiguity.
It's only unclear if you have an ulterior motive.
Then I guess there are a lot of pro-gun conservatives who have an ulterior motive! The sentence isn’t even grammatical according to the rules of modern English because the controversial comma separates a subject from its predicate.
A metric by which no other amendment is interpreted, otherwise we could insist completely dumb shit like "soldiers must remain homeless for the duration of their service".
The justification is actually to "protect state security." It's right there in the text.
Security of a free state.
Sounds like you need to start executing politicians for the tyranny of "food safety standards" then because the only metric by which America is more "free" than comparable countries is "guns sold to idiots, extremists and domestic terrorists".
By justification, you mean the spirit of the law right?
By justification I mean the reason for the right. The right being the right to bear arms.
That sounds like well regulated militia is the spirit of the law. The reason for it, the intention, however you want to word it.
It says right in the text the purpose is to protect the security of the state.
"A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State,...."
It follows that the state is what may regulate the militia.
The right of the people to keep and bear Arms shall not be infringed.
Important parts in bold.
Stick your fingers in your ears and yell as loud as you want, its not gonna make the well regulated portion go away.
Not even beginning to mention the founders intentions of the constitution evolving over time, as the lethality, proliferation, and criminal usage of guns has skyrocketed since that amendment was written.
At least some of the founders had the intention of the second amendment allowing the population to overthrow tyrannical rulers.
Yeah i dont think guns are gonna get you very far with that.
Arms, not guns. Also, tell that to the Vietnamese, and Afghanis.
Something the second amendment has accomplished exactly zero times.
The reason for the law is because the militia was used to defend the US. That changed very quickly when the founders figured out that loosely organized militias were no match to even fight Natives in the Northwest Territory. So the justification is moot now since militias play almost no part in the defense of the US.
I saw a YouTube video or maybe a website article years ago stating that the U.S. can never be conquered, that if an organized foreign military defeated the organized U.S. military they will have a hard time with the millions upon millions of guns in the country.
I mean, if they defeated the military what can a militia do?
I'd say it is more down to the size of the US. There are 330 million people in a country nearly the size of Europe. A country could definitely get a chunk of the US. That would definitely require fully defeating our military which is pretty unlikely. Insurgency can definitely gum things up a bit for foreign invaders but it really takes outside support to actually accomplish much.
The second amendment is not clear and has been given the broadest possible interpretation. Are you a member of a well-regulated militia?
Not well regulated but yes I am part of the militia. Well regulated means well supplied. The militia is everyone able-bodied in the US.
No it doesnt
Yes. It. Does. Just because the common definition for militia changed doesn't mean that the meaning of the writing with the definition of the time is different because you want it to be.
It wasnt the definition of the time either. It has always meant what it means today.
Even if that were true, it doesn't matter because the militia is not the right. The right is the right of the people to keep and bear arms.
I think there's subtleties that you're ignoring to push an agenda. I do think it's important to understand the question on the table though. The question isn't what rights you have, but when is the government allowed to take away those rights.
Maybe we should take a step back. Do you think the government can revoke a person's 2nd amendment rights? For example do prisoners have the right have a shiv in their cell? The question posed in this instance is whether or not a restraining order for domestic assault rises to the level of due process for taking away that right. It's already firmly written into law that the government can leverage due process to take away rights. Unless you're arguing that it is an absolute right, and we should all be allowed to have nuclear bombs and prisoners should be allowed to have shivs, then I think you're missing the point.
You also seem to have a very tenuous definition of the 2nd amendment that you're willing to change when it doesn't fit your needs. It seems like you might want to think it through a bit more, and perhaps try to get at the root of the question at hand, instead of spouting that everyone should be allowed to have arms no matter what. The implication of that statement is a bit terrifying, and is well outside of our current legal adjudication of the 2nd amendment.
If someone is in custody they can have their rights Curtailed. As soon as they are free they should be able to exercise all of their rights once more. The only definition that matters is the right defined which is the right to bear arms and that hasn't changed.
https://reason.com/2019/11/03/what-is-a-well-regulated-militia-anyway/
From the introductory paragraph in your own link. Again this isn't whether most Americans can posses weapons but does a domestic abuse restraining order rise to the level of due process. Which oddly falls in line with the second paragraph of the source you linked:
There's nothing I found in the article you linked which claims that the 2nd amendment is an absolute right that cannot be revoked. You're arguing something that simply isn't a thing and avoiding the actual question at hand.
Shall not be infringed. Pretty god damn simple.
Where are you getting that well regulated means well armed? It meant, and still means, trained, able to take orders, and battlefield ready. Where do you think the term "regulars" comes from in the context of historical warfare and what do you think that term means?
Did you throughly misunderstand collective rights theory or something? Could you possibly point me to the interpretation where it claims "well regulated" means "well armed" in the context of the 2nd amendment? I certainly couldn't find any sources to back that claim and it seems like you might have pulled it out of your backside.
It doesn't really matter what it means because the right is the right of the people to keep and bare arms. The militia is merely the justification for that right. I'm not putting in the effort here because I don't have to. It is extremely clear and simple.
reg·u·late verb past tense: regulated; past participle: regulated control or maintain the rate or speed of (a machine or process) so that it operates properly. "a hormone that regulates metabolism and organ function" Similar: control adjust manage balance set synchronize modulate tune control or supervise (something, especially a company or business activity) by means of rules and regulations. "the organization that regulates fishing in the region" Similar: supervise oversee police superintend monitor check (up on) keep an eye on inspect administer be responsible for control manage direct guide govern rule order keep tabs on keep a tab on keep a beady eye on set (a clock or other apparatus) according to an external standard. "the standard time by which other clocks were regulated"
sup·ply verb past tense: supplied; past participle: supplied make (something needed or wanted) available to someone; provide. "the farm supplies apples to cider makers" Similar: give contribute provide furnish donate bestow grant endow afford impart lay on come up with make available proffer dispense allocate allot assign disburse lavish shower regale fork out shell out minister serve confer equip rig out outfit clothe fit arm kit out endue provide (someone) with something needed or wanted. "they struggled to supply the besieged island with aircraft" be adequate to satisfy (a requirement or demand). "the two reservoirs supply about 1% of the city's needs"
Seems Oxford's disagrees.
Actually if you'd like to look at the definition in a historical context, it used to be used as both "governed" and "in proper working order."
https://www.oed.com/search/advanced/Quotations?textTermText0=Well+regulated&textTermOpt0=QuotText&tl=true
This is from that same oxford dictionary, the years are next to the quotes.
Yes, as we all know words never change. Have a gay day.
Not that much. You are way the fuck off.
Wow you just make up words now and say they mean whatever you want?
Regulated and Regimented are more synonymous that whatever you are talking about.
No. Well regulated meant in working order which is why people who owned weapons had to register them and have them inspected. Do you have yours registered with the government? When was the last time you had them inspected by the government to make sure you can defend the US as art of the militia?
for the purposes of a well regulated militia
Yeah we don't have those anymore chief. We have this thing called a military instead and I already saw your "everyone is a part of the militia" opinion, that's some straight up bullshit.
Their constitution says the US isn't even supposed to keep a standing army. There's lots of discussion about that by the people who wrote it and decided on the specific language.
Also, you're right about the 2nd amendment. The part about the well regulated militia is part of the right, a qualifier, not subsequent.
But, people in the US, both government and citizens, clearly don't follow their constitution very well. It's used to justify whatever they want to do when they can and freely ignored when inconvenient.
Sounds like the Bible.
Tell me about it, I get to suffer living here listening to all of the creative interpretations of the constitution. My favorites are when someone clearly hasn't read it says a quote is in it and says it to me who used to read and carry a copy of the constitution.
"(a)The militia of the United States consists of all able-bodied males at least 17 years of age and, except as provided in section 313 of title 32, under 45 years of age who are, or who have made a declaration of intention to become, citizens of the United States and of female citizens of the United States who are members of the National Guard" https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/10/246#:~:text=(a)The,the%20National%20Guard
Sooo really sounds like only men between 17 and 45 or women in the national guard get the right to a firearm per the writing of the constitution.
Yeah, which is sexist as fuck so tbh I don't prefer that interpretation, and do 17yos really need to be able to pass NICs checks? Like, rn they can have one if a parent buys it for them, but to expand that seems...iffy at best...
I think I mentioned my favorite part but to reiterate, once you hit 45 you just lose the right to own a gun. Really doesn't sound like freedom to arms to me.
Yeah also there's no gay marriage in there so we should ban that, abortion, medical transitioning....
Yeah I'm not the biggest fan of the literalist interpretation. Seems like playing with fire. Furthermore as you've pointed out quite succinctly, the literalist interpretation is silly as fuck.
Militia is to conscripted military member as jury pool is to petit jury.
It doesn't fucking matter. The right is not for a militia. The right is for all the people to bear arms.
And well regulated meant well supplied. The militia has plenty of guns when the militia is the people and the people have plenty of guns.
Please tell me more about what people you've never met defined something to be. Or preferably tell us that's your interpretation
There are other, primary sources, that back up this interpretation. The Federalist Papers is a good starting point.
I don’t know the real answer, but it seems that defining a collective right as the second in a list of nine other individual rights doesn’t seem logical. I, personally, believe the individual right is what was intended. I also believe that over 200 years have passed and it needs to be updated. Arguing the semantics isn’t going to help anyone and simply attempting to re-interpret what’s supposed to be a living document is absurd. That being said, it would take a lot more people being a lot more rational to ever have a hope of making those changes.
Yeah, quoting the federalist papers to me is about as good as me quoting some other source that as equally invalidates that opinion.
Sure it's a source and sure you can based an opinion on it but it's not definitive by any means no matter how much conservatives would like to suggest otherwise.
Let me get this straight, you don’t believe that the words mean something and claim we can’t know their intent, then when offered additional context provided by some of the people who wrote the words you disagree with you dismiss it out of hand?
What would be a proper source to you then? Or do you prefer to revel in willful ignorance? Because that sounds like a pretty conservative view to me.
And I'll point out my exact issue "written by some people who wrote them"
What if I quoted Thomas Jefferson, who did the actual writing of the constitution, about separation of church and state? Would you then agree that it's needed as he so strongly agreed for?
What I'm telling you is I disagree with the writers of the federalist papers as did quite a few of the other founders.
I was not arguing one way or the other, I was providing historical context. You’re arguing against points I never made. I’m glad you disagree with the writers of the federalist papers, but that is irrelevant.
I do agree with Thomas Jefferson on the need for a separation of church and state. You seem to have read me entirely incorrectly and made some weird assumptions.
You are correct that I made incorrect assumptions and for what it's worth I apologize. Thank you for the historical context and have a lovely evening.
Read the first sentence again.
The right is solely because the founders meant for the US to rely on the militia for defense. That changed very fucking quick because the state militias were uncoordinated garbage so the federal government recognized the need for a large standing army. Militias being our main defense has not been a thing since the mid 1790s. You are a couple hundred years behind.
That's funny, because it looks to me like the PEOPLE were guaranteed a right.
Because they thought the militia was necessary for the defense of the state. They found out that idea was wrong pretty quickly.
Ok, boomer
Shall not be infringed.
So you can buy any weapon in any manner of firing, including full auto or are there laws in place to prevent this?
You should be able to but there are infringements in place like the originally excessively expensive $200 tax stamp for fully automatic weapons.
Even for people with a history of gun violence? Does this also prohibit separate penalties of disarmament when someone is found guilty?
You understand how this interpretation of the law can’t have a positive effect on society right?
If they're too dangerous to be trusted in polite society then why are they released? If they just so happen to try it in a polite society that's well armed we won't have to worry any longer.
Ughh have you heard of the eighth amendment you absolute fucking donkey?
Of course you haven't, you never even learned to read.
Then if they've served their time don't steal their rights for the rest of their lives.
No one who has actually read the 2A has ever thought it was "clear".
The right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed.
Everything to the left of it is just a justification for why that right exists. Can you tell me with a straight face that that right is not clear?
Please tell me where the Supreme Court, who is responsible for constitutional law understanding, was wrong?
The constitution is supposed to be a fluid system, designed to be ratified and easy to apply to modern standards, if the country would actually do it, to create a better life for everyone I the United States.
Even the Supreme Court says you are wrong.
No, that is one ideology called the "living constitution". But there are many who oppose that ideology.
The revolutionary war was won with the help of private warships. That would have been well known to the founding fathers who wrote the bill of rights. Do you think that they would suddenly not want the citizens to be able to defend the homeland because guns are scary?
https://reason.com/2019/11/03/what-is-a-well-regulated-militia-anyway/
Yes.
You are either disingenuous or an idiot.
Well you seem to be both.
Or neither
Yes, because you are violating the rules of English grammar in your claim. As was my original point, it is impossible to claim any interpretation of the 2A without violating grammar. As a result, it can have any meaning you want, since you will make up the rules you like in order to interpret it the way you want.
You know that half the states had restrictions (no open carry, concealed carry, registration, etc) when the 2nd Amendment was passed and continued to have those restrictions after, right? For something being so clear, a good portion of the states sure misunderstood it...or maybe it's you that does.
It's much easier to just argue that a "well regulated militia" means "morbidly obese with neither training nor discipline".
It's why they never have any other skills that would be useful in a war, like establishing ad hoc communication networks, piloting a drone, field medicine, even working as a team.
Their entire contribution would just be "have gun" and if their staunch opposition to wearing masks in a pandemic is anything to go by, they wouldn't even offer their country that.
Do you have a source?
Also, for some time it was interpreted that the constitution was only a limitation on the federal government and not state governments iirc
https://theconversation.com/five-types-of-gun-laws-the-founding-fathers-loved-85364
The only "restriction" there are relevant to control was registration. But that wasn't to control that was to require you had at least one weapon. If your job requires you have steel-toed boots, that doesn't limit your ownership of other boots.
You don't consider safe storage laws, banning open and concealed carry, and loyalty oaths to fall under gun control? If not, then 👍.
You would have to register all your guns and they were inspected to make sure at least one was in working order. That is if you owned a gun. Some states did require you to own one unless you feel under one of the myriad of exemptions they allowed.
But yeah, if you don't consider those things control, I'm largely fine with your level of what most would consider control.
Of course he will say all that while incarcerated and trying to get out on good behavior.
Gonna be real hard to accomplish all that with a federal felony firearms conviction on your record. Not to mention being involved in five separate shootings in a three-month period.
And he is NOT dropping the suit for what, "exactly"?
Whoever paid for his lawyers won't let him.
The Constitution is definitely clear. Due Process of Law is required to deprive a citizen of their Constitutional rights.
Do Civil proceedings pass the bar of "Due Process"? This is what the SCOTUS must decide.
Personally I don't think they are sufficient enough Due Process alone. I do however suspect that if criminal charges are filed and one is convicted of violence, a Civil court judge may still be within their rights to suspend the rights of the accused to own a firearm temporarily to protect someone.
So this man was already convicted of gun violence once by a criminal court.
The evidence shows he's been sanctioned by a protective order.
He's been indicted on criminal charges. Yep. I think this guy in particular probably did not have his Constitutional rights to own a gun intact.
Ah yeah. This. He definitely should not be allowed to own a gun if convicted under these separate charges.
Relatedly, I also see there's a federal law on the books. Hmm. This sounds like the people already believe this civil proceeding is Due Process!